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comment_58698

Hello,

 

I currently use Gel as my primary method. A tech on the weekend got the following:

 

3 cell screen: 2+ for all

Gel panel A (11 cells) 1+ and 2+ reactions with the exception of 2 cells and the Auto control that were neg.

Gel panel B (11 cells) 1+ and 2+ reactions with the exception of 3 cells that were neg.

 

No pattern of single, multiple, multiples with dosage.

 

Wells appeared to have  thin sheet on the top of the column. Tube method immediate spin revealed Rouleaux and AHG results were negative. Saline Rep was done at immediate spin and reactions were removed.

 

Is this a good enough, to prove that Rouleaux is causing the reactions in Gel? What would you recommend to indicate reactions are Rouleaux and not something else?

 

Thanks,

 

-Serafin

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  • When we used gel and had a problem like that we repeated the screen with tube. If the tube screen was negative, that's what we reported, but noted the problem with the gel testing.

  • I agree with AMcCord, you have proven that there is no clinically significant antibodies and that rouleaux is the culprit in the gel reactions.

comment_58718

When we used gel and had a problem like that we repeated the screen with tube. If the tube screen was negative, that's what we reported, but noted the problem with the gel testing.

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comment_58724

OK, that's what we've done so far.I was just wondering if that is evidence enough to show that there are no clinically significant antibodies or we should've done a panel as well.

comment_58736

I agree with AMcCord, you have proven that there is no clinically significant antibodies and that rouleaux is the culprit in the gel reactions.

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