I had a patient that had an ABO discrepancy. Testing is as follows:
anti-A: 4+, anti-B: 4+, A1 cell: 1+s, B cell: 4+, Screen cells I.S.: all negative, LISS 37: all negative, poly AHG: all negative. Group O donors I.S.: negative, Group A donors: 1+ to 2+. Saline replacement for A1 and group A donors: negative. Microscopically, the A1 and A donors do not really appear as rouleaux. So the question is why do we see apparent rouleaux only with the A cells and not the screening cells?
This flow chart was originally created for training travelers, but now is used for new hires as well. A significant departure from the typical transfusion service is steps taken on certain blood samples prior centrifugation The TYPENEX code is entered from the blood sample container to verify that it was correctly entered into Meditech by the phlebotomist. It is better to detect problems prior to testing than when attempting to release blood component to Nursing.
I'm sure this has been asked before but I cannot find a feed about it. What does everyone use as their expiration for a sample when the patient has NOT been pregnant or transfused? We currently use 10 days but my pathologist is considering changing it to a 3 day expiration of all blood bank tubes regardless of whether they've had an exposure or not. I'm thinking of the ramifications of this with not being able to do our pre-surgical specimens a week in advance and it would really change our workflow. Advice please.
I am curious to know who out there, is employing MLT's (medical lab technicians) versus MT's (medical technologists. For those places that use both, do you find any difference in the quality of work of the techs? Any difference in the time it takes for orientation and training?
If you use MLT's do you serve as a site for their clinical rotations? If so, how much time do they spend in your BB/TS and how much do they do (antibody panels? eluates? adsorptions?).
I currently use Gel as my primary method. A tech on the weekend got the following:
3 cell screen: 2+ for all
Gel panel A (11 cells) 1+ and 2+ reactions with the exception of 2 cells and the Auto control that were neg.
Gel panel B (11 cells) 1+ and 2+ reactions with the exception of 3 cells that were neg.
No pattern of single, multiple, multiples with dosage.
Wells appeared to have thin sheet on the top of the column. Tube method immediate spin revealed Rouleaux and AHG results were negative. Saline Rep was done at immediate spin and reactions were removed.
Is this a good enough, to prove that Rouleaux is causing the reactions in Gel? What would you recommend to indicate reactions are Rouleaux and not something else?