trisram

can you send me too? rsnowayinhell1@gmail.com

You're correct, IAT means indirect coombs test, not indirect antiglobulin test ... Sorry, I forgot what IAT meant. I see what you mean. Sorry, I usually work in microbiology. I am no blood bank expert.

No. Direct coombs, DAT, in vivo. I don't know anything about IAT .

I apologize. We don't use IAT here where I work, just the direct coombs. But anyways, I was out of line. I apologize

I apologize, I was out of line.

nevermind. thanks. what kind of panels you use? 11 cell panel, all O Positive cells? or do you use select cells too? any other reagents? thanks, but this doesn't answer my question one bit

your answer doesn't make any sense. where are you getting all these cell samples? so I get both positive and negative cells? what does that prove? can i just expired panel cells as select cells? I just want to rule out everthing but my two suspected antibodies. that's it. I don't need all these other rubbish

Thank you, but what do you mean, 2 from cells samples? where can I get these samples? from the cell sample store? or can I use prior expired panel cells that are positive/negative for the corresponding antigens?

3 is not a question

1) You get a postive antibody screen. 2) You then do an antibody ID panel. 3) The results of the panel makes you suspect 2 or more antibodies in the patient's plasma. What do you do next and what reagents/methodology do you use? Thank you in advance for your time and help!

I wasn't trying to make decisions on you. I apologize if it seemed that way. I am just tired of incompetent people working in the medical industry. Enough patients have died already. Nothing against you personally because I don't know anything about you. But, anyways, I apologize, so sorry.

error

I don't care about diluents. This still doesn't answer my initial question. Dude, you're a SBB, do you know the answer?

Thanks but you misunderstood what I said. The washing with warm saline procedure was from the people who makes the gel cards. It wasn't for replacement, because there was no plasma to replace and no antibody to wash away. We add the plasma afterward. Well, this is what happened: 1) We did the gel card Ab screen and it showed rouleaux in the gel. 2) we read manufacturer's procedure of ridding rouleaux by washing screening cells 6 times 3) after washing screening cells, we pipet them into the gel cards and finally add the patients plasma 4) incubate for 15 mins 5) centrifuge gel card 6) Rouleaux all gone My question is , why wash the screen cells? what are we washing off? forget the plasma. this is not replacement. we add the plasma after we wash our screen cells with warm saline? why warm saline? why not cold? like I said, if Malcolm doesn't know the answer, chances are, nobody does

Wow, if Malcolm doesn't know the answer, it probably doesn't exist

which one is diluent 2? is that the mts diluent?

what enhancement? I thought that was the clear liquid in the gel cards

I had this patient with multiple myeloma. Her antibody screen on gel card had rouleaux reactions for all 3 screening cells. I then washed the screening cells six times with warm saline. The screen was then negative. Forgive me if this is dumb, but why wash the screen cells? Obviously it worked, but isn't rouleaux a plasma property? That is why we do saline replacement when doing tube cross matches. I was just wondering if there is a mechanism or principle I am missing here. Thank you for time and reading.

http://www.aabb.org/Documents/About_Blood/Circulars_of_Information/coi0809r.pdf

I am looking for information on frequency of antigens. Like, which are most common and which are not. Can anybody help me find this information? Thank you for your time

I was just wondering why is important to test for little c antigen on all donor units before issuing the units to a patient who has Anti-E. Does anybody else do this? Thank you for your time

Each time FFP is needed, if a type&screen is not done within the last 3 days, FFP won't be issued. Once the type&screen is performed and the screen is negative, that is when we issue the FFP. If the screen is positive, we won't issue until the Ab ID is done. I've never been in a situation where there was no time to do a type&screen just to issue FFP. Usually, in emergency situations, blood is issued.

Well, there won't be a need to do a gel crossmatch if the patient's screen is negative. I was talking about the screen mostly, since rouleaux is mostly a property of the plasma, not cells. Of course washing cells is mandatory and important. Anyways, everyone always wash the patient and donor cells.

You probably assumed I washed the cells before I tested them with AHG. The DAT could be a false positive. You need to wash cells because there may be Wharton jelly on it.

A 60 year old man is admitted into the ER. He has a history of colon cancer. Some blood is drawn from him for lab tests: His blood culture came up positive for E. coli. His hemoglobin is : 8.1 g/dl His ABO RH is: Anti-A= 4+ Anti-B=0 Anti-D=4+ a1 cells= 2+ b cells= 4+ What could be the explanation for this discrepancy? Here is what I answered: Patient possibly have sub-group other than A1 cells, perhaps A2. I test commercial A2 cells with patient's serum. Then test patient cells with anti-A1 lectin. If both tests are negative, then patients cells are A subgroup other than A1. So his blood type is A+. Did I miss anything? I am just wondering why the E.coli part was added to the question. It is known that gram negative bacteria can modify the A antigen to a B antigen, and I was thinking maybe this was a B antigen phenomena question, but then, that would have mean, forward typing would have been positive for B antigen. Maybe that E.coli thing was thrown in there to confuse things. Thanks.