I have a question regarding donor eligibility and determining donor gender.

AABB’s 5.4.1A refers to FDA's “Revised Recommendations for the Prevention of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Transmission by Blood and Blood Products 4/23/92” which indicates we must indefinitely defer males donors who have had sex with another male since 1977.

What defines gender?

If the donor was born male and did not have sex with another male since 1977 and then has gender reassignment surgery and now presents as female who is having sex with males, do they qualify?

I’m sure there are many other scenarios I could come up with, but I think this conveys the general confusion we are having.

Thank you,

Cliff

"If the donor was born male and did not have sex with another male since 1977 and then has gender reassignment surgery and now presents as female who is having sex with males, do they qualify?"

gender = social role = female

sex = biological = male

David

So I would believe they would not qualify.

Good analysis rrcc1974.

Any opinion on how to manage the more rare donor, one that is intersexed, or born male and female?

I would think if they were having sex with men since 1977 then they would not qualify.

David

I may be incorrect, but I believe when a person has gender reassignment surgery they are legally considered to be the new gender.

If the person is now a female and is having sex with a male, isn't that a heterosexual relationship?

The point of the MSM deferral is because HIV or other sexually transmitted pahtogens are more prevalent in homosexual males who engage in "risky behavior" isn't it?

Edited December 15, 201014 yr by jgabbard

The issue is biological not legal. So no matter what gender you are now if you are male and had risky behavior with another male since 1977 you are deferred.

It's a bit of semantics isn't it? Not trying to be too serious about it. It's kind of the wrong question to be asking for deferral anyways.

David

I do not want to begin a moral or ethical debate about gender, I only wanted to see what others do when presented with these situations.

I contacted AABB, the Joint Commission and FDA.

Neither AABB nor TJC had a clear stance on this issue, FDA did.

Per our local CSO, FDA states "FDA policy is that if the donor was born as a genetic male, you must ask the MSM question. If the donor answers 'yes' (have you had sex with a male since 1977?), the donor must be deferred."

So, that answers that question

What about the male having anal sex with female and female her self?

What about the male having anal sex with female and female her self?

It wasn't my intent to question the validity of the FDA guidance, but to properly interpret it.

I think you are getting pretty far off of the topic.

It wasn't my intent to question the validity of the FDA guidance, but to properly interpret it.

I think you are getting pretty far off of the topic.

Yes Cliff, my question is not related to ur question; Actually it is a new a question needing a reply from seniors like u!!