There is an article in Transfusion, "How We evaluate Panagglutinating Sera" on page 1540, volume 49, August 2009. The authors present an algorithm for panagglutinating sera. Are you familiar with the information in this article and how does it relate to this patient? I am curious about this situation and it completely baffles me, and hope you don't mind answering these questions... Am I correct in thinking that if, in your workup, the patient's serum reacted with 8 of 11 cells, then this is not really a panagglutinin? The definition of a panagglutinin, as presented in the aforementioned article, is an agglutinin that reacts with all red cells tested. Also, you mention that in a later workup the sera was nonreactive at 4C and RT, so doesn't this mean that this is not a cold agglutinin? You mentioned that in an earlier workup it looked as if a cold agglutinin might be developing. What is the explanation for the nonreactivity with enzyme-treated cells? Is this an antibody to a HFA or a HTLA that is denatured by enzymes? In the aforementioned article, in the flowchart presented on page 1541, there is a step where the autocontrol is negative or weaker than the reaction with panel cells, there is persistence of panagglutination after auto- and alloadsorption, there is no reactivity after papain treatement, and the flow leads one to think maybe there is an anti-HFA or anti-CH/RG..... Why are the PEG/IgG crossmatches all compatible, and are they incompatible without the PEG? I would like to understand this situation better, and hope you don't mind my questions... Thank you!