Rhona24 Posted November 22, 2011 Share Posted November 22, 2011 I am delivering a case study about anti-G in an obstetric patient. The baby in this case was Ccdee but I wondered whether anyone had ever seen an obstetric patient produce an anti-G but not an anti-D when the baby was D+ ? or is the administration of prophyltactic anti-D to women who have a anti-G or anti-C+G only to cover a theoretical risk? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Malcolm Needs ☆ Posted November 22, 2011 Share Posted November 22, 2011 I have certainly seen a case where a baby with a Weak D and a C antigen was born to a lady who made only anti-C+G, and required anti-D immunoglobulin.To answer the second part of your question, however, you have to take into account a lady who may have remarried a D+ man, having already produced an anti-G or anti-G+C in a previous pregnancy, or (how can I put this delicately), who has been "playing away" with another D+ man. In neither case is the risk just theoretical!!!!!! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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