So the other day, I had an interesting question from a neonatologist. Her question (and I am summarizing, not directly quoting) was in regards to a microscopically positive DAT and if there is less antibody present. Her concern was how aggressively she needed to treat the baby, because the baby was jaundiced at less than 12 hours. Mom was O pos, baby A pos, and had microscopically positive DAT. So there was some ABO incompatibility I wasn't completely sure how to explain this, but my co-worker said there was a smaller fetal bleed. Today, I was reading a text that stated "the strength of the reaction does not correlate well with the severity of the HDN." The text was Modern Blood Banking & Transfusion Practices, 5th edition, by Denise Harmening, page 389. So in your experience, does the strength of a reaction correlate with the severity of a fetomaternal hemorrhage? How should I explain this in the future? Thanks y'all.